I had the same question when I am reading the RL textbook from Sutton Bartol as posted here.
Why do we update $W$ with $\frac{1}{\mu (A_t | S_t)}$ instead of $\frac{\pi (A_t | S_t)}{\mu (A_t | S_t)}$?
It seems that, with the updating rule from the textbook, whatever action $\mu$ decides to choose, we automatically assume that $\pi$ will choose it with 100% probability. But $\pi$ is greedy with respect to Q. How does this assumption make sense?