I've been reading A Reduction of Imitation Learning and Structured Prediction to No-Regret Online Learning lately, and I can't understand what they mean by the surrogate loss function.
Some relevant notation from the paper -
- $d_\pi$ = average distribution of states if we follow policy $\pi$ for $T$ timesteps
- $C(s,a)$ = the expected immediate cost of performing action a in state s for the task we are considering (assume $C$ is bounded in [0,1]
- $C_\pi(s) = \mathbb{E}_{a\sim\pi(s)}[C(s,a)]$ is the expected immediate cost of $π$ in $s$.
- $J(π) = T\mathbb{E}_{s\sim d_\pi}[C_\pi(s)]$ is the total cost of executing policy $\pi$ for $T$ timesteps
In imitation learning, we may not necessarily know or observe true costs $C(s,a)$ for the particular task. Instead, we observe expert demonstrations and seek to bound $J(π)$ for any cost function $C$ based on how well $π$ mimics the expert’s policy $π^{*}$. Denote $l$ the observed surrogate loss function we minimize instead of $C$. For instance, $l(s,π)$ may be the expected 0-1 loss of $π$ with respect to $π^{*}$ in state $s$, or a squared/hinge loss of $π$ with respect to $π^{*}$ in $s$. Importantly, in many instances, $C$ and $l$ may be the same function – for instance, if we are interested in optimizing the learner’s ability to predict the actions chosen by an expert.
I don't understand how exactly the surrogate loss is different from the true costs, and what are the possible cases in which both are the same. It'd be great if someone could throw some light on this. Thank you!