Assuming we use an MSE cost function of the form
$$ \sum_s\mu(s)(V_{\pi}(S_t)-\hat{V}(S_t,\theta_t))^2 = E_{\mu(s)}[(V_{\pi}(S_t)-\hat{V}(S_t,\theta_t))^2])$$
The Stochastic Gradient Descent is used to approximate the true update algorithm, which looks like this
$$\theta_{t+1} = \theta_{t} - \frac{\eta_t}{2}\nabla_{\theta}(E_{\mu(s)}[(V_{\pi}(S_t)-\hat{V}(S_t,\theta_t))^2])$$
to this
$$\theta_{t+1} = \theta_{t} - \frac{\eta_t}{2}\nabla_{\theta}(U_t-\hat{V}(S_t,\theta_t))^2$$
where, for simplicity, $U_t$ represents an unbiased estimate of the true value function $V_{\pi}(s_t)$. This expression is the source of many learning algorithms used in reinforcement learning.
One of the conditions for SGD requires that samples used for updating the parameters must be I.I.D according to the distribution $\mu(s)$. However, in both on-policy and off-policy learning methods, updates at each time-step are based on trajectories generated. Since, along a trajectory, the state $s_{t+1}$ depends on the state at ${s_t}$, this means that the sample used to update $\theta_t$ and $\theta_{t+1}$ are not independent. Many, if not all, sample-based learning algorithms used in RL rely on using SGD, such as the Gradient Monte Carlo Algorithm but I've not really seen anywhere that mentions these algorithms have the "issue" that I mention so I feel like I'm missing something. More formally,
My Question: Does the fact that parameter updates are not I.I.D mean we can't really use stochastic gradient descent AT ALL in learning algorithms, and, if so, why then do these algorithms "work"?
As far as I know, this question applies equally to all forms of parameterised function approximation that are used with learning algorithms (tabular functions*, linear functions and non-linear functions). But, if anyone knows a special reason as to whether these cases should be treated separately could they make clear why
*I understand that when learning algorithms with tabular functions, there exists theory beyond SGD that ensures convergence, however, I'm not entirely sure what this theory is and whether if this makes them exempt, so if anyone knows whether or not it does make them exempt could they also make this clear!
Edit:
It has been highlighted in the comments that replay buffers have been used to resolve the issue of correlated sampling in cases such as DQN and variants of it. This implies correlated sampling is an issue in these cases. Aside from this, I've not heard of replay buffers being used elsewhere (correct me if I'm wrong), so why are replay buffers needed with this off-policy NN approach but not in other learning algorithms given that they all suffer from the issue of correlated sampling.