# Do these FOL formula both represent "You can fool some of the people all of the time"?

You can fool some of the people all of the time.

This can be represented in FOL as follows

$$\exists x \; \forall t \; (\text{person}(x) \land \text{time}(t)) \Rightarrow \text{can-fool}(x,t) \tag{1}\label{1}$$

Is $$\exists x \; \forall t \; \text{can-fool}(\text{person}(x), \text{time}(t))$$ equivalent to (\ref{1}) ?