In one-step TD updates, the target is the first reward plus the discounted estimated value of the next state, which we call the one-step return (page 143 of Sutton & Barto):
$$ G_{t:t+1} \triangleq R_{t+1}+\gamma V_{t}(S_{t+1}) $$
where $V_t: \mathcal{S} \to \mathbb{R} $ is the estimate at $\textbf{time t}$ of $v_{\pi}$.
My question is this: Why do we have $t$ as subscript in $V$ instead of $t+1$ in the expression of $G_{t:t+1}$? Since we are at time $t+1$ where state is $S_{t+1}$, it seems more logical to have $V_{t+1}(S_{t+1})$.