Skip to main content

All Questions

Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
3 votes
0 answers
88 views

Why does this formula $\sigma^2 + \frac{1}{T}\sum_{t=1}^Tf^{\hat{W_t}}(x)^Tf^{\hat{W_t}}(x_t)-E(y)^TE(y)$ approximate the variance?

How does: $$\text{Var}(y) \approx \sigma^2 + \frac{1}{T}\sum_{t=1}^Tf^{\hat{W_t}}(x)^Tf^{\hat{W_t}}(x_t)-E(y)^TE(y)$$ approximate variance? I'm currently reading What Uncertainties Do We Need in ...
user8714896's user avatar