Because Binary Cross-Entropy Loss is a commonly used loss function for binary classification problems in machine learning:
$$
L = - \frac{1}{N} \sum_{i=1}^{N} \left[ y_i \cdot \log(\hat{y_i}) + (1 - y_i) \cdot \log(1 - \hat{y_i}) \right]
$$
- $N$ is the number of samples.
- $y_i$ is the true label of the $i$-th sample (0 or 1).
- $\hat{y_i}$ is the predicted probability for the $i$-th sample (i.e., the probability of predicting 1).
If the true label $y_i=0$, the loss is $\log(1 - \hat{y}_i)$, and similarly, if $y_i=1$, the loss is $\log(\hat{y}_i)$.
By dividing the samples based on their true labels, we arrive at the form used in GANs:
$$
\mathbb{E}_{\boldsymbol{x} \sim p_{\text {data }}(\boldsymbol{x})}[\log D(\boldsymbol{x})]+\mathbb{E}_{\boldsymbol{z} \sim p_{\boldsymbol{z}}(\boldsymbol{z})}[\log (1-D(G(\boldsymbol{z})))]
$$
As for why Binary Cross-Entropy Loss is chosen for binary classification problems, that is a broader question.
Additionally, it's important to note that GANs do not only train the discriminator but also the generator. The choice of such a joint optimization objective can be explained by the fact that the generator's optimization goal is to minimize the Jensen-Shannon (JS) divergence between the real data distribution $p_{\text{data}}$ and the generated data distribution $p_g$.
The original paper proves that when optimizing the discriminator $D$, fixing $G$, it becomes a maximization problem. The optimal solution for the discriminator is:
$$
D^*_G(\boldsymbol{x}) = \frac{p_{\text{data}}(\boldsymbol{x})}{p_{\text{data}}(\boldsymbol{x}) + p_g(\boldsymbol{x})}
$$
Substituting $D^*_G$ into $V(D, G)$ gives:
$$
V(D^*_G, G) = \mathbb{E}_{\boldsymbol{x} \sim p_{\text{data}}} \left[ \log \frac{p_{\text{data}}(\boldsymbol{x})}{p_{\text{data}}(\boldsymbol{x}) + p_g(\boldsymbol{x})} \right] + \mathbb{E}_{\boldsymbol{x} \sim p_g} \left[ \log \frac{p_g(\boldsymbol{x})}{p_{\text{data}}(\boldsymbol{x}) + p_g(\boldsymbol{x})} \right]
$$
This simplifies to:
$$
V(D^*_G, G) = -\log 4 + 2 \cdot JS(p_{\text{data}} \| p_g)
$$
Therefore, the optimization objective $\min_G V(D^*_G, G)$ is equivalent to minimizing the JS divergence:
$$
\min_G JS(p_{\text{data}} \| p_g)
$$
However, with the alternative optimization objective you mentioned, after a similar derivation, we find:
$$
V'(D^*, G) = \mathbb{E}_{\boldsymbol{x} \sim p_{\text{data}}} \left[ \frac{p_{\text{data}}}{p_{\text{data}} + p_g} \right] + \mathbb{E}_{\boldsymbol{x} \sim p_g} \left[ \frac{p_g}{p_{\text{data}} + p_g} \right] = 1
$$
Unlike the original GAN, the alternative loss function does not directly express a divergence measure between $p_{\text{data}}$ and $p_g$. The original GAN provides a symmetric and meaningful distribution alignment measure through JS divergence, while the alternative loss function lacks this theoretical foundation and cannot guarantee that $p_{\text{data}} = p_g$ at the optimum.