All Questions
1 question with no upvoted or accepted answers
3
votes
0
answers
88
views
Why does this formula $\sigma^2 + \frac{1}{T}\sum_{t=1}^Tf^{\hat{W_t}}(x)^Tf^{\hat{W_t}}(x_t)-E(y)^TE(y)$ approximate the variance?
How does:
$$\text{Var}(y) \approx \sigma^2 + \frac{1}{T}\sum_{t=1}^Tf^{\hat{W_t}}(x)^Tf^{\hat{W_t}}(x_t)-E(y)^TE(y)$$
approximate variance?
I'm currently reading What Uncertainties Do We Need in ...
- 805